1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: d

2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
(a) Boyle's law    
(b) Charles'law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) all of the above
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: d

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(a) Centigrade      
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit      
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Ans: d

4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tonne                
(d) quintal
(e) newton.
Ans: a

5. The unit of time in S.I. units is
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour                
(d) day
(e) year.
Ans: a

6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer        
(d) millimeter.
Ans: a

7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) joule/s
(d) joule/m
(e) joule m.
Ans: b

8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies directly as
(a) temperature    
(b) absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.
Ans: c

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies
(a) more volume  
(b) Less volume
(c) same volume
(d) unpredictable behaviour
(e) no such correlation.
Ans: a

10. General gas equation is
(a) PV=nRT      
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KRT
(e) Cp-Cv = Wj
Ans: b

11. According to Dalton's law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.
Ans: c

12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits.
(a) O2, N2, steam, CO2
(b) O2, N2, water vapour
(c) SO2, NH3, CO2, moisture
(d) O2, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, CO2.
Ans: d

13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
(a) kg/cm2
(b) mm of water column
(c) pascal
(d) dynes per square cm
(e) bars
Ans: c

14. A closed system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Ans: a

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to
(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.
Ans: b

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c

17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic
(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Ans: a

18. The pressure'of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d) 2E/3
(e) 5E/4.
Ans: d

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.
Ans: a

20. Superheated vapour behaves
(a) exactly as gas
(b) as steam
(c) as ordinary vapour
(d) approximately as a gas
(e) as average of gas and vapour.
Ans: d

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur
(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of - 273 °K
Ans: c

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at
(a) - 273 °K
(b) vacuum
(c) zero pressure  
(d) centre of earth
(e) in space.
Ans: c

23. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: d

24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of - 273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can't be attained.
Ans: a

25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) remains constant.
Ans: b

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41
Ans: c

27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to
(a) C/Cv
(b) Cv/Cp
(c) Cp - Cv
(d) Cp + Cv
(e) Cp x Cv
Ans: c

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by
(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws
 Ans: d

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.
Ans: d

30. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under
(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.
Ans: b

31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles' law    
(b) Joule's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Boyle's law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their
(a) densities
(b) specific weights
(c) molecular weights
(d) gas characteristic constants
(e) specific gravities.
Ans: c

33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures
(a) Charles' Law  
(b) Joule's Law
(c) Regnault's Law
(d) Boyle's Law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: c

34. An open system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy  crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
 Ans: c

35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant
(a) Joule's law      
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles' law.
Ans: e

36. Gases have
(a) only one value of specific heat
(b) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.
Ans: b

37. According to Avogadro's Hypothesis
(a) the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same conditions of pressure and temperature
(b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
(c) product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
(d) gases have two values of specific heat
(e) all systems can be regarded as closed systems.
Ans: a

38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) is always constant.
Ans: a

39. Work done in a free expansion process is
(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.
Ans: c

40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as
(a) Avogadro's hypothesis
(b) Dalton's law
(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: a

41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of each constituent of the flue gases is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight
(e) divided by its specific weight.
Ans: b

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal to
(a) + v
(b) - ve
(c) zero
(d) pressure x volume
(e) any where between zero and infinity.
Ans: c

43. An isolated system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: b

44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions.
Ans: b

45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Ans: d

46. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume  proportional to its molecular weight
(b) occupies volume  proportional to its specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.
Ans: e

47. Mixture of ice and water form a
(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) heterogeneous system
(e) thermodynamic system.
Ans: d

48. Which of the following is the property of a system
(a)     pressure and temperature
(b)     internal energy
(c) volume and density
(d) enthalpy and entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 73
(e) 79.
Ans: b

50. Which of the following is not the intensive property
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Ans: d

51. Which of the following items is not a path function
(a) heat
(b) work
(c) kinetic energy
(d) vdp
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: e

52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on
(a) the end states only
(b) particular adiabatic process
(c) the value of index n
(d) the value of heattransferred
(e) mass of the system.
Ans: a

53. Heat and work are
(a) point functions
(b) system properties
(c) path functions
(d) intensive properties
(e) extensive properties.
Ans: c

54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given temperature and pressure
(a) enthalpy
(b) volume
(c) mass
(d) entropy
(e) specific volume.
Ans: b

55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be
(a) reversible process
(b) isothermal process
(c) adiabatic process
(d) irreversible process
(e) free expansion process.
Ans: b

56. Solids and liquids have
(a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.
Ans: a

57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is
(a) 54°C
(b) 327°C
(c)  108°C
(d) 654°C
(e) 600°C
Ans: b

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion
(a) pV"=C
(b) isothermal
(c) adiabatic
(d) free expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: b

59. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pV" = C, then the process is known as constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) temperature    
(d) enthalpy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
(a) flow is uniform and steady
(b) process is isentropic
(c) process is isothermal
(d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
(e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.
Ans: d

61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant temperature
(c) constant volume
(d) constant entropy
(e) N.T.P. condition.
Ans: a

62. The term N.T.P. stands for
(a) nominal temperature and pressure
(b) natural temperature and pressure
(c) normal temperature and pressure
(d) normal thermodynamic practice
(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.
Ans: c

63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as
(a) heat exchange process
(b) throttling process
(c) isentropic process
(d) adiabatic process
(e) hyperbolic process.
Ans: e

64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
(e) shows unpredictable behaviour.
Ans: c

65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(a) deals with conversion of mass and energy
(b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
(c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other
(d) deals with heat engines
(e) does not exist.
Ans: c

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final temperature of mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 20°C
(e) 60°C.
Ans: b

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro's hypothesis.
Ans: a

68. One watt is equal to
(a) 1 Nm/s
(b) 1 N/mt
(c) 1 Nm/hr
(d) 1 kNm/hr
(e) 1 kNm/mt.
Ans: a

69. Work done is zero for the following process
(a) constant volume
(b) free expansion
(c) throttling
(d) all Of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error
(a) dry steam
(b) wet steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam
(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: d

71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m  to 2 m3. The work done will be about
(a) 100 xlOO5 joules
(b) lxlO5 joules
(c) 10 xlO5 joules
(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
(e) 10xl04ki\ojoules.
Ans: c

72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is
(a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
(b) 8314kgfm/mol°K
(c) 848kgfm/mol°K
(d) 427kgfm/mol°K
(e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.
Ans: c

73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 77
(e) 79.
Ans: a

74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
(a) specific heat at constant pressure
(b) specific heat at constant volume
(c) ratio of two specific heats
(d) gas constant
(e) unity.
Ans: d

75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is
(a) 29.27 J/kmol°K
(b) 83.14J/kmol°K
(c) 848J/kmol°K
(d) All J/kmol °K
(e) 735 J/kmol °K.
Ans: b

76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.
Ans: d

77. In a free expansion process
(a) work done is zero
(b) heat transfer is zero
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) work done is zero but heat increases
(e) work done is zero but heat decreases.
Ans: c

78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is known as
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: e

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in
(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) both pressure and temperature
(d) variation of its constituents
(e) air flow
Ans: a

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a process is called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: a

81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible
(a) throttling
(b) free expansion
(c) constant volume and constant pressure
(d) hyperbolic and pV = C
(e) isothermal and adiabatic.
Ans: e

82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process
(a) isothermal      
(b) adiabatic
(c) throttling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied
(a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be encountered
(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be same
(c) when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be same
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body and working substance should be
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(d) maximum
(d) infinity
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a

85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.
Ans: b

86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.
Ans: a

87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.
Ans: b

88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to
(a) increase higher temperature
(b) decrease higher temperature
(c) increase lower temperature
(d) decrease lower temperature
(e) keep lower temperature constant.
Ans: d

89. Entropy change depends on
(a) heat transfer    
(b) mass transfer
(c) change of temperature
(d) thermodynamic state
(e) change of pressure and volume.
Ans: a

90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) unpredictable
(e) negative.
Ans: c

91. Isochoric process is one in which
(a) free expansion takes place
(b) very little mechanical work is done by the system
(c) no mechanical work is done by the system
(d) all parameters remain constant
(e) mass and energy transfer do not take place.
Ans: c

92. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(b) total   internal   energy   of  a   system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.
Ans: d

93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.
Ans: b

94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between
(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.
Ans: b

95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: c

97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: c

98. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.
Ans: c

99. Total heat of a substance is also known as
(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) thermal capacity
(d) enthalpy
(e) thermal conductance.
Ans: d

100. First law of thermodynamics
(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
(c) does not enable to determine change in entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in
(a) raising its temperature
(b) raising its pressure
(c) raising its volume
(d) raising its temperature and doing external work
(e) doing external work.
Ans: d

102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
(a) reversible engine
(b) irreversible engine
(c) new engine
(d) petrol engine
(e) diesel engine.
Ans: a

103. Measurement of temperature is based on
(a) thermodynamic properties
(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics
(e) joule's law.
Ans: b

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon
(a) properties of the medium/substance used
(b) condition of engine
(c) working condition
(d) temperature range of operation
(e) effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.
Ans: d

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when
(a) initial temperature is 0°K
(b) final temperature is 0°K
(c) difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
(d) final temperature is 0°C
(e) initial temperature is minimum possible.
Ans: b

106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
(a) 650°K
(b) 600°K
(c) 625°K
(d) 700°K
(e) 750°K.
Ans: a

107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the working substance will change accordingly
(a) temperature
(b) enthalpy
(c) internal energy
(d) entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then
(a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
(b) process is executed in closed system cycle
(c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility
(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
(e) no work will be done by the system.
Ans: d

109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
(b) a fully reversible engine
(c) transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high temperature source
(d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy
(e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.
Ans:

110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is
(a) feasible
(b) impossible
(c) possible
(d) possible, but with lot of sophistications
(e) desirable.
Ans: d

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
(a) justified
(b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of sophistications
(d) cost will be very high
(e) theroretically possible.
Ans: b

113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant volume
(c) constant temperature
(d) constant enthaply
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: c

114. A diathermic wall is one which
(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b

115. An adiabatic wall is one which
(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) dos not exist.
Ans: a

116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.
(c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
(d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
(e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.
Ans: c

117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football
(a) becomes hotter
(b) becomes cooler1
(c) remains at the same temperature
(d) may become hotter or cooler depend-ing upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air
(e) attains atmospheric temperature.
Ans: b

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
(a) at atmospheric pressure
(b) at a pressure below the firuosphejric pressure
(c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(d) any pressure
(e) not possible.
Ans: c

119. During throttling process
(a) heat exchange does not take place
(b) no work is done by expanding steam
(c) there is no change of internal energy of steam
(d) all of the above
(e) entropy decreases.
Ans: d

120. The energy of molecular motion appears as
(a) heat
(b) potential energy
(c) surface tension
(d) friction
(e) increase in pressure.
Ans: a

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a
sign of approaching
(a) fine weather    
(b) rains
(c) storm
(d) cold wave
(e) hot wave.
Ans: c

122. The unit'of universal gas constant is
(a) watts/°K
(b) dynes/°C
(c) ergscm/°K    
(d)erg/°K
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

123. Calorie is a measure of
(a) specific heat    
(b) quantity of heat
(c) thermal capacity    
(d)entropy
(e) work.
Ans: b

124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to
(a) 760 mm Hg    
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg  
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) lOOmmHg.
Ans: c

125. Barometric pressure is equal to
(a) 760 mm Hg    
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg  
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) 100mm Hg.
Ans: a

126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to
(a) 1 kgf/cnr2
(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
(c) 0 kgf/cm2
(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
(e) 100 kgf/cm2.
Ans: b

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of heat
(e) conservation of temperature.
Ans: b

128. A perpetual motion machine is
(a) a thermodynamic machine
(b) a non-thermodynamic machine
(c) a hypothetical machine
(d) a hypothetical machine whose opera-tion would violate the laws of thermodynamics
(e) an inefficient machine.
Ans: d

129. Kelvin Planck's law deals with
(a) conservation of heat
(b) conservation of work
(c) conversion of heat into work
(d) conversion fo work into heat
(e) conservation of mass.
Ans: c

130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics
(a) heat can't be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source
(b) heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle.
(c) heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more than unity
(d) heat can't be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external energy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

131. Thermal power plant works on
(a) Carnot cycle  
(b) Joule cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(d) Otto cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.
Ans: c

132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle
(a) carnot
(b) Stirling
(c) ericsson
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on
(a) working substance
(b) design of engine
(c) size of engine
(d) type of fuel fired
(e) temperatures of source and sink.
Ans: e

135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(c) efficiency depends on other factors
(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for
(a) gas engine
(b) well lubricated engine
(c) petrol engine
(d) steam engine
(e) reversible engine.
Ans: e

137. Carnot cycle is
(a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
(c) a semi-reversible cycle
(d) a quasi static cycle
(e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.
Ans: a

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics, and two constant volumes.
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle
(a)     more
(b)     less
(c) equal
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
(a) reversible cycles
(b) irreversible cycles
(c) quasi-static cycles
(d) semi-reversible cycles
(e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.
Ans: a

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and two constant pressure processes is known as
(a) Otto cycle      
(b) Ericsson cycle
(c) Joule cycle      
(d) Stirling cycle
(e) Atkinson cycle.
Ans: c

142. Reversed joule cycle is called
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
(d) Bell Coleman cycle
(e) Dual cycle.
Ans: c

143. Brayton cycle consists' of following four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two   isentropics   and   two   constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle
(a) Carnot
(b) Ericsson
(c) Stirling
(d) Joule
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(e) Stirling cycle.
Ans: c

146. The efficiency of Diesel cycle with decrease in cut off
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a

147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency
(a) Rankine
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Brayton
(e) Joule.
Ans: c

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending  on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on ap-plication
(e) unpredictable.   "
Ans: b

150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Bell-Coleman cycle
(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Ans: e

151. Gas turbine cycle consists of
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is that
(a) carnot cycle can't work with saturated steam
(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
(c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two places
(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

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THERMAL ENGINEERING

 

1.      For water, at pressures below atmospheric,
(a)     melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(b)     melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
(c)     melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(d)     melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

2.      At very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures become equal. This temperature is
(a) 373°K    
(b) - 273.16°K
(c) 303°K    
(d) 0°K.
(e) 300°K.
Ans: b

3.      The critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is
(a)     225.65 kgf/cm2
(b)     273 kgf/cm2    
(c)     100 kgf/cm2
(d)     1 kgf/cm2   
(e)   - 1 kgf/cm2.
Ans: a

4.      The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to latent heat at atmospheric pressure is
(a)     less  
(b)     more
(c)     equal
(d)     may be less or more depending on temperature
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: a

5.      The saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure increases
(a)     linearly
(b)     rapidly first and then slowly
(c)     slowly first and then rapidly
(d)     inversely
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

6.      Carbonisation of coal is the process of
(a)     pulverising coal in inert atmosphere
(b)     heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C
(c)     strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
(d)     binding the pulverised coal into brick-ettes
(e)     enriching carbon in the coal.
Ans: c

7.      Coke is produced by
(a)     pulverising coal in inert atmosphere
(b)     heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below               300C
(c)     strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the                   absence of air in a closed vessel
(d)     binding the pulverised coal into bricketts
(e)     enriching carbon in the coal.
Ans: c

8.      Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as
(a) enthalpy
(b) superheating
(c) supersaturation
(d) latent heat
(e) super tempering.
Ans: b

9.      Superheating of steam is done at
(a)     constant volume
(b)     constant temperature
(c)     constant pressure
(d)     constant entropy
(e)     constant enthaply.
Ans: c

10.     1 kg.m is equal to
(a) 9.81 Joules      
(b) 1 Joules
(c) 427 Joules      
(d) 102 Joules
(e) 539 Joules.
Ans: a

11.     If partial pressure of air and steam be pa and ps respectively in a condenser, then according to Dalton's law, the pressure in condenser is equal to
(a) Ps-Pa    
(b) pa-ps
(c) Pa+P,   
Ans: c

12.     Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at
(a)     0°C   
(b)     100°C
(c)     saturation temperature at given pressure
(d)     room temperature
(e)     20°C.
Ans: b

13.     The specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases
(a)     linearly
(b)     slowly first and then rapidly
(c)     rapidly first and then slowly
(d)     inversely
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

14.     The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare
(a)     the given boiler with the model
(b)     the two different boilers of the same make
(c)     two different makes of boilers operat¬ing under the same operating conditions
(d)     two boilers of same make but operaing under different conditions
(e)     any type of boilers operating under any conditions.
Ans: e

15.     The coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the order of
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 kg
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 kg
(c) 0.6 to 0.8 kg
(d) 1.0 to 1.5 kg
(e) 1.5 to 2 kg.
Ans: c

16.     Sublimation region is the region where
(a)     solid and vapour phases are in equi-librium
(b)     solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
(c)     liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(d)     solid, liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

17.     Stoichiometric quantity of air is the
(a)     air present in atmosphere at NTP conditions
(b)     air required for complete combustion of fuel with no excess air
(c)     air required for optimum combustion so as to have reasonable excess air
(d)     air required to convert CO into C02
(e)     air required to form an explosive mixture.
Ans: b

18.     One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; it's dryness fraction is
(a) 0.2       
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.0        
(d) 0.6
(e) 0.5.
Ans: b

19.     If a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness fraction can be most accurately determined by
(a)     throttling calorimeter
(b)     separating calorimeter
(c)     combined separating and throttling calorimeter
(d)     bucket calorimeter
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

20.     If xx and x2 be the dryess fractions obtained in separating calorimeter and throttling calorimeter respectively, then the actual dryness fraction of steam will be
(a) xxx2     
(b) x, + x2
Ans: a

21.     The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
(a) 0.1       
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.5        
(d) 0.8
(e) 1.0.
Ans: c

22.     On Mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by    '
(a)     horizontal straight line
(b)     vertical straight line
(c)     straight inclined line
(d)     curved line
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

23.     A wet vapour can be completely specified by
(a)     pressure only
(b)     temperature only
(c)     dryness fraction only
(d)     specific volume only
(e)     pressure and dryness fraction.
Ans: e

24.     On Millier chart, the constant pressure lines
(a)     diverge from left to right
(b)     diverge from right to left
(c)     are equally spaced throughout
(d)     first rise up and then fall
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

25.     On Mollier chart, free expansion, or throttling process from high pressure to atmosphere is represented by
(a)     horizontal straight line
(b)     vertical straight line
(c)     straight inclined line
(d)     curved line
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

26.     The bituminous coal is non-caking if its carbon content is
(a) 78-81% 
(b) 81-85%
(c) 85-90% 
(d) 90-95%
(e) 95-100%.
Ans: a

27.     The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (5-10 kg/cm2) when throttled to atmosphere will become
(a)     wet   
(b)     superheated
(c)     remain dry satruated
(d)     dry    
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

28. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm2 and 160°C temperature when exposed to atmosphere will
(a)     boil
(b)     flash i.e. get converted into steam
(c)     remain as it was
(d)     cool down
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

29.     The dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150-200 kg/cm2) when throttled to atmosphere will become
(a)     wet   
(b)     superheated
(c)     remain dry saturated
(d)     dry    
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

30.     In a throttling process
(a)     steam temperature remaisn constant
(b)     steam pressure remains constant
(c)     steam enthalpy remains constant
(d)     steam entropy remains constant
(e)     steam volume remains constant.
Ans: c

31.     In a throttling process
(a)     heat transfer takes place
(b)     work is done by the expanding steam
(c)     internal energy of steam changes
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: e

32.     The pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero, is
(a)     below atmospheric pressure
(b)     1 kg/cm2    
(c)     100 kg/cm2
(d)     170 kg/cm2    
(e)     225.6 kg/cm2.
Ans: e

33.     Latent heat of dry steam at atmospneric pressure is equal to
(a)     539 kcal/kg    
(b)     539 BTU/lb
(c)     427 kcal/kg    
(d)     100 kcal/kg
(e)     471 kcal/kg.
Ans: a

34.     The latent heat of steam with increase of pressure
(a) remains same  
(b) increases
(c)     decreases
(d)     behaves unpredictably
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

35.     At critical point, i.e. p=225.65 kg/cm2, the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is
(a)     maximum   
(b)     minimum
(c)     zero
(d)     depends on temperature also
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

36.  At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical
(a) 0.1 kg/cm2      
(b) 1 kg/cm2
(c) 100 kg/cm2    
(d) 225.6 kg/cm2
(e) it is never possible.
Ans: d

37.     In an experiment to determine dryness fraction of steam, the mass of water separated was 1.2 kg in 15 mts and the mass of steam passed out in same time was 4.8 kg. Dryness fraction is
(a) 40%      
(b) 25%
(c) 50%      
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: d

38.     While steam expands in turbines, theoretically the entropy
(a)     remains constant
(b)     increases
(c)     decreases
(d)     behaves unpredictably
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

39.     Heating wet steam at constant temperature is heating it at constant
(a) volume  
(b) pressure
(c) entropy  
(d) enthalpy
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

40.     Adiabatic process is
(a)     essentially an isentropic process
(b)     non-heat transfer process
(c)     reversible process
(d)     constant temperature process
(e)     constant enthalpy process.
Ans: b

41.     The state of vapour under saturation condition is described by
(a)     pressure alone
(b)     temperature alone
(c)     pressure and temperature
(d)     pressure and dryness fraction
(e)     dryness fraction alone.
Ans: d

42.     Pick up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam
(a)     latent heat is zero
(b)     liquid directly becomes steam
(c)     specific volume of steam and liquid is same
(d)     this is the maximum pressure limit
(e)     all properties of liquid and steam are same.
Ans: d

43.     Water boils when its vapour pressure
(a)     equals that of the surroundings
(b)     equals 760 mm of mercury
(c)     equals to atmospheric pressure
(d)     equals the pressure of water in the container
(e)     boiling has ^nothing to do with vapour pressure.
Ans: a

45.  Mechanical equivalent of heat for 1 kcal or Joule's equivalent is equal to
(a) 421 kgm        
(b) 421 kgm
(c) 539 kgm
(d) 102 kgm
(e) 75 kgm.
Ans: a

46.     Equivalent evaporation of water is the evaporation "for a feed water supply at 100°C
(a)     and its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm2
(b)     and its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure
(c)     conversion into steam at atmospheric condition
(d)     conversion into steam at the same pres-sure at which feed water is supplied  
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

47.     The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called
(a)     evaporative capacity
(b)     factor of evaporation
(c)     equivalent evaporation
(d)     one boiler h.p.
(e)     boiler efficiency.
Ans: d

48.     The increase in pressure
(a)     lowers the boiling point of a liquid
(b)     raises the boiling point of a liquid
(c)     .does not affect the boiling point of a liquid
(d)     reduces its volume
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

49.     During polytropic process
(a)     heat transfer takes place across cylinder walls
(b)     work is done
(c)     steam may be wet, dry or superheated after expansion
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

50.     Hygrometery deals with the
(a)     Hygroscopic substances
(b)     water vapour in air
(c)     temperature of air
(d)     pressure of air
(e)     density measurement.
Ans: b

51.     Orsat meter is used for
(a)     gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
(b)     volumetric analysis of the flue gases
(c)     mass flow of the flue gases
(d)     measuring smoke density of flue gases
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

52.     Alkaline pyrogallate is used in Orsat's apparatus for absorption of
(a) CO2      
(b) CO
(c) O2
(d) N2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

53.     An ideal regenerative cycle is
(a)     equal to carnot cycle
(b)     less than carnot cycle
(c)     more than carnot cycle
(d)     could be anything
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

54.     Efficiency of rankine cycle can be increased by
(a)     decreasing initial steam pressure and temperature
(b)     increasing exhaust pressure
(c)     decreasing exhaust pressure
(d)     increasing the expansion ratio
(e)     increasing number of regenerative heaters.
Ans: a

55.     Cochran boiler is a
(a)     horizontal fire-tube boiler
(b)     horizontal water-tube boiler
(c)     veritcal water-tube boiler
(d)     vertical fire tube boiler
(e)     forced circulating boiler.
Ans: d

56.     Lancashire 'boiler is a
(a)     stationary fire tube boiler
(b)     stationary water tube boiler
(c)     water tube boiler with natural/forced circulation
(d)     mobile fire tube boiler
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

57.     Efficiency of a thermal cycle increases by
(a)     regeneration
(b)     reheating of steam
(c)     both (a) and (b)
(d)     cooling of steam
(e)     none of the above.
 Ans: c

58.     One kilowatt-hour energy is equivalent to
(a) 1000 J   
(b) 360 kJ
(c) 3600 kJ 
(d) 3600 kW/sec
(e) 1000 kJ.
Ans: c

59.     Which of the following gases has the highest calorific value
(a) producer gas  
(b) coal gas.
(c) water gas        
(d) blast furnace gas
(e) coke oven gas.
Ans: b

60. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of
(a)     frictional losses
(b)     it is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature
(c)     leakage
(d)     non-availability of ideal substance
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

61.     For burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct combusiton, amount of air required is
(a) 1 kg      
(b) 4/3kg
(c) 8/3kg    
(d) 2 kg
(e) 16/3 kg.
Ans: b

62.     The diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(a) 1-2 m   
(b) 1.5-2.5 m
(c) 2-3 m    
(d) 2.5-3.5 m
(e) 0.5 to 1 m.
Ans: a

63.     The lenght of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(a) 2-4 m   
(b) 3-5 m
(c) 5-7.5 m 
(d) 7-9 m
(e) 9-11 m.
Ans: c

64.     The diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one half
(b) one third
(c) one-fifth
(d) two-fifth
(e) three-fifth.
Ans: a

65.     Steam engine operates on
(a) carnot cycle    
(b) joule cycle
(c) Stirling cycle  
(d) brayton cycle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

66.     The change in internal energy in steam engines equals to
(a)     work done during the rankine cycle    ;
(b)     work done during compression.
(c)     work done during adiabatic expansion
(d)     change in enthalpy
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

67.     Water tube boilers are those in which
(a)     flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b)     water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c)     work is done during adiabatic expansion
(d)     change in enthalpy
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

68.     Locomotive type' boiler is
(a)     horizontal multitubular water tube boiler
(b)     water wall enclosed furnace type
(c)     vertical tubular fire tube type
(d)     horizontal multi-tubular fire tube type
(e)     none of the above types.
Ans: d

69.     Lancashire boiler is of
(a)     stationary& fire tube-type
(b)     horizontal type
(c)     natural cirulation type
(d)     internally fired type
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: e

70.     Fire tube boilers are those in which
(a)     flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b)     water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c)     forced circulation takes place
(d)     tubes are laid vertically
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

71.     Which of the following substance will have same percentage in both proximate and ultimate analysis
(a) ash       
(b) volatile matter
(c) moisture
(d) hydrogen
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

72.     The number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is
(a) zero      
(b) one
(c) two        
(d) four
(e) many.
Ans: c

73.     Which of the following is a fire tube boiler
(a)     locomotive boiler
(b)     Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(c)     Stirling boiler.
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

74.     Which of the following is a water tube boiler
(a)     locomotive boiler
(b)     Cochran boiler
(c)     Cornish boiler
(d)     Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(e)     Lancashire boiler.
Ans: d

75.     The diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of
(a) 1 tp 1.25m    
(b) 1 to 1.75 m
(c) 2 to 4 m
(d) 1.75 to 2.75 m
(e) 2.25 to 4.5 m.
Ans: d

76.     A packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fans, feed pumps and automatic controls are
(a)     supplied by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
(b)     supplied mounted on a single base
(c)     purchased   from  several   parties   and packed together at site
(d)     packaged boiler does not exist
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

77.     The biggest size of thermal power unit operating in India is
(a) 30 MW  
(b) 60 MW
(c) 100 MW 
(d) 210 MW
(e) 500 MW.
Ans: e

78.     Which of the following coals has the highest calorific value
(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite    
(d) peat
(e) wood.
Ans: a

79.     The high pressure boiler is oiie producing steam at a pressure more than
(a)     atmospheric pressure
(b)     5 kg/cm2    
(c)     10 kg/cm2
(d)     40 kg/cm2      
(e)     75-80 kg/cm2.
Ans: e

80.     The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to
(a)     give maximum space
(b)     give maximum strength
(c)     withstand pressure inside boiler ,
(d)     resist intense heat in fire box
(e)     enable easy,manufacture.
Ans: d

81.     Which of the following is steam dbal
(a)     non-coking bituminous coal
(b)     brown coal
(c)     pulverised coal
(d)     coking bituminous coal
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

82.     The fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scotish marine boiler are
(a)     horizontal   
(b)     vertical
(c)     inclined
(d)     both horizontal and vertical
(e)     horizontal and inclined.
Ans: a

83.     The diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one-half
(b) one-third
(c) one-fourth      
(d) one-fifth
(e) two-fifth.
Ans: e

84.     The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to
(a)     serve as storage of steam
(b)     serve as storage of feed water for water wall
(c)     remove salts from water
(d)     separate steam from water
(e)     control level.
Ans: d

85.     Duplex feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate on the principle of
(a)     centrifugal pump
(b)     axial flow pump
(c)     gear pump
(d)     ejector pump
(e)     reciprocating pump.
Ans: e

86.     The best suited coal for chain or travelling grate stoker boiler is
(a)     coking coal
(b)     non coking or free burning coal
(c)     pulverised coal
(d)     high sulphur coal
(e)     least ash content coal.
Ans: b

87.     In natural circulation type boiler,
(a)     heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b)     water is supplied in durm and through down-comers located in atmospheric conditon it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
(c)     feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d)     water is converted into steam in one . pass without any recirculation
(e)     water is fed at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: a

88.     Hard coke is produced by carborisation of coal at
(a) atmospheric temperature
(b) 500-600°C    
(c) 700-850°C
(d) 950-1100°C    
(e) 1200-1500°C.
Ans: d

89.. Hard coke is used in
(a)     cement industry
(b)     thermal power plant
(c)     blast furnace
(d)     domestic use
(e)     locomotives
Ans: c

90.     Pick up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler
(a)     cornish is fire tube and lancashire is water tube
(b)     cornish is water tube and lancashire is fire tube
(c)     cornish has two fire tubes and lancashire has one
(d)     lancashire has two fire tubes and cornish has one
(e)     both have two fire tubes.
Ans: d

91.     In locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to
(a) 1 kg/cm2        
(b) 5 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2      
(d) 18 kg/cm2
(e) 31 kg/cm2.
Ans: d

92.     Locomotive boiler is of the following type
(a) multitubular    
(b) horizontal
(c) internally fired
(d) mobile  
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

93.     The shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are
(a) 1.5 m, 4 m      
(b) 1.5 m, 6 m
(c) 1 m, 4 m        
(d) 2 m, 4 m
(e) 1.5 m, 8 m.
Ans: a

94.     The diameters of fire tubes and superheaer tubes in locomotive boiler are
(a)     47.5 mm, 130 mm
(b)     32.5 mm, 180 mm
(c)     65.5 mm, 210 mm
(d)     24.5 mm, 65 mm
Ans: a

95.     The water tubes in a babcock and wilcox boiler are
(a)     horizontal   
(b)     vertical
(c)     inclined
(d)     horizontal and inclined
(e)     vertical and inclined.
Ans: c

96.     Which of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam boilers
(a)     non-coking bituminous coal
(b)     brown coal      
(c)     peat
(d)     coking bituminous coal
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: e

97.     The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is
(a)     more 
(b)     less
(c)     same
(d)     could be more or less depending on other factors
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

98.     A boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of
(a) DIN       
(b) BS
(c) ASTM     
(d) IBR
(e) GOST.
Ans: d

99.     The  function  of injector used  in  small steam plants is to
(a)     create vacuum in furnace
(b)     create vacuum at turbine exhaust
(c)     pump feed water
(d)     dose chemicals in feed water
(e)     control steam temperature by injecting water.
Ans: c

100.   Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands
(a)     babcock and wilcox
(b)     locomotive      
(c)     lancashire
(d)     cochran       
(e)     comish.
Ans: b

101.   The difference between cornish boiler and lancashire boiler is that
(a)     former is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
(b)     former is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
(c)     former contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
(e)     none/of the above.
Ans: c

102.   In accelerated circulation type boiler
(a)     heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of stdam bubbles and hot water which rise to durm
(b)     water is supplied in drum and through downcomers" located in atmospheric conditon it passes to the water wall and rises to durm in the from of mixture of water and steam
(c)     feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(e)     water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e)     water is fed under high pressure and high velocity.
Ans: b

103.   Pick up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube boilers
(a)     former generates steam at high pressure
(b)     former occupies less space for same power
(c)     rate of steam flow is more in former case
(d)     former is used for high installed capacity
(e)     chances of explosion are less in former case.
Ans: e

104.   The number of drums in Benson steam generator is
(a)     one   
(b)     two
(c)     one steam drum and one water drum
(d)     no drum
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

105.   A fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to
(a)     avoid excessive build up of pressure
(b)     avoid explosion
(c)     extinguish fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit
(d)     control steam dome
(e)     remove molten aslj.
Ans: c

106.   The fusible plug in small boilers is located
(a)     in the drum
(b)     in the fire tubes
(c)     above steam dome
(d)     over the combustion chamber
(e)     at the inlet of chimney.
Ans: d

107.  Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin, lead, and
(a) bismuth 
(b) copper
(c) aluminium      
(d) nickel
(e) iron.
Ans: a

108. Boiler H.P. is defined as the
(a)     steam evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired
(b)     work done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
(c)     the evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
(d)     work done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition
(e)     heat consumed in evaporating 1 kg water at 0°C to steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm  pressure.
Ans: c

109.   In forced recirculation type boiler,
(a)     heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b)     water is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
(c)     feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d)     water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e)     heating of water takes place in stages.
Ans: c

110.   The ratio of heat utilised to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is known as
(a)     boiler effectiveness
(b)     boiler evaporative capacity
(c)     factor of evaporation
(d)     equivalent evaporation
(e)     boiler efficiency.
Ans: e

111.   Steam in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler
(a)     can be raised rapidly
(b)     is raisd at slower rate
(c)     is raised at same rate
(d)     could be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design
(e)     none of the above is true.
Ans: a

112.   Thermal efficiency of well maintained boiler will be of the order
(a) 20%      
(b) 40%
(c) 50%      
(d) 75%
(e) 90%.
Ans: e

113.   Thermal efficiency of a thermal power plant is of the order of
(a) 15%      
(b) 20%
(c) 30%      
(d) 45%
(e ) 60%.
Ans: c

114.   It is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler should be used ?
(a)     pulverised fuel fired boiler
(b)     cochran boiler
(c)     lancashire boiler
(d)     babcock and wilcox boiler
(e)     stoker fired boiler.
Ans: c

115.   The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is
(a)     boiler efficiency, turhine efficiecny, generator efficiency
(b)     all the three above plus gas cycle efficiency
(c)     carnot cycle efficiency
(d)     regenerative cycle efficiency
(e)     rankine cycle efficiency.
Ans: a

116.   Which type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load
(a)     vertical fire tube type
(b)     horizontal fire tube type
(c)     horizontal water tube type
(d)     vertical water tube type
(e)     forced circulation type.
Ans: e

117.   In forced circulation type boiler
(a)     heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b)     water is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
(c)     feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d)     water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e)     water is heated in a large number of tubes.
Ans: d

118.   Boiler stays are used to
(a)     prevent flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart
(b)     take care of failure in shear
(c)     take care of failure in compression
(d)     provide support for boiler
(e)     provide foundation of boiler.
Ans: a

119.   The radius of a dished head is taken approximately as
(a) one-fourth      
(b) half
(c) one       
(d) two
(e) three.
Ans: c

120.   Size of boiler tubes is specified by
(a)     mean diameter and thickness
(b)     inside diameter and thickness
(c)     outside diameter and thickness
(d)     outside diameter and inside diameter
(e)     outside diameter alone.
Ans: c

121.   The heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of
(a)     heat carried away by flue gases
(b)     heat carried away by ash
(c)     moisture present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of hydrogen in fuel
(d)     radiation
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: e

122.   The major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be provided
(a) longitudinally  
(b) circumferentially
(c) on dished end  
(d) anywhere
(e) vertically.
Ans: b

123.   In which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by utilising exhaust steam from engine
(a)     lancashire boiler
(b)     locomotive boiler
(c)     babcock and wilcox boiler
(d)     cochran boiler
(e)     benson boiler.
Ans: b

124.   With increase in load, radiant superheater has
(a)     drooping characteristic
(b)     lihear characterisstic
(c)     rising characteristic
(d)     flat characteristic
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

125.   With increase in load, convection superheater has
(a)     drooping characteristic
(b)     linear characterisstic
(c)     rising characteristic
(d)     flat characteristic
(c)     none of the above.
Ans: c

126.   The diameter of fire  tubes  in Cochran boiler is of the order of
(a) 2 cm     
(b) 6 cm ,
(C) 8 cm     
(d) 12 cm
(e)  15 cm.
Ans: b

127.   In a recuperative air preheater, the heat is transferred
(a)     from a metal wall from one medium to another
(b)     from heating an itermediate material and then heating the air from this material
(c)     by direct mixing      ,
(d)     heat is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

128.   A safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be
(a) water     
(b) dry steam
(c) wet steam       
(d) super heated steam
(e) supersaturated steam.
Ans: d

129.   The temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be
(a)     100°C
(b)     above dew-point temperature of flue gases
(c)     below dew-point temperature of flue gases
(d)     less than wet bulb temperature of flue gases
(e)     above wet bulb temperature of flue gases.
Ans: b

130.   In regenerative air preheater, the heat is transferred
(a)     from a metal wall from one medium to another
(b)     from heating an intermediateanaterial and then heating the air from this material
(c)     by direct mixing
(d)     heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

131.   In designing air preheater, the important design consideration is that
(a)     approach temperature  should be as low as possible
(b)     handling and maintenance should be easier
(c)     heat transfer area should be optimum
(d)     stack gases should not be cooled to the dew point
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

132.   The pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater compared to inlet condition is
(a)     more 
(b)     less
(c)     equal
(d)     may be more or less depending on capacity of reheater
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

133.   The function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to
(a)     create vacuum
(b)     inject chemical solution in feed pump
(c)     pump water,  similar to boiler feed pump
(d)     add make up water in the system
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

134.   The safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at
(a) higher value    
(b) lower value
(c) same value      
(d) any value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

135.   The height of chimney in a power plant is governed by
(a)     the draft to be created
(b)     limitation of construction facilities
(c)     control of pollution
(d)     quantity of flue gases to be handled
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: c

136.   Steam exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in
(a) boiler drum    
(b) superheater tubes
(c) economiser    
(d) a separate coil
(e) a separate coil located in convection path.
Ans: e

137.   Vacuum for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam turbines is
(a)     more 
(b)     equal
(c)     less
(d)     could be more or less depending on the size of plant
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

138.   Expanding steam to a very low prseeure (high vacuum) in steam engines is
(a) desirable        
(b) economical
(c) essential
(d) optional
(e) uneconomical.
Ans: e

139.   In locomotives, the draught is produced by
(a)     chimney
(b)     induced draft fan
(c)     both combined (a) and (b)
(d)     steam jet draught
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

140.   Reheating of steam under ideal conditions takes place at constant
(a) entropy 
(b) enthaply
(c) pressure
(d) temperature
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

141.   The maximum discharge through a chimney occurs when the height of chimney is
(a)     infinitely long
(b)     around 200 meters
(c)     equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
(d)     outside temperature is very low
(e)     more than the tallest building nearby.
Ans: c

142.   Proximate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
(a)     carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b)     fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(c)     higher calorific value
(d)     lower calorific value
(e)     rough analysis.
Ans: b

143.   Which device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of pollution
(a)     induced draft fan
(b)     smoke meter    
(c)     chimney
(d)     precipitator      
(e)     pulveriser.
Ans: d

144.   Bomb calorimeter is used to determine
(a)     Higher calorific value at constant volume
(b)     Lower calorific value at constant volume ,
(c)     Higher calorific value at constant pressure
(d)     Lower calorific value at constant pressure
(e)     None of the above.
Ans: a

145.   Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
(a)     carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b)     fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(c)     higher calorific value
(b)     lower calorific value
(e)     best analysis.
Ans: a

146.   For combutsion of a fuel, following is essential
(a)     correct fuel air ratio
(b)     proper ignition temperature
(c)     O2 to support combustion
(d)     all the three above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

147.   Spontaneous combustion is a phenomenon in which
(a)     all the fuel burns instantaneously producing high energy release
(b)     fuel burns with less air
(c)     coal bursts into flame without any external ignition source but by itself due to gradual increase in temperature as a result of heat released by combination of oxygen with coal
(d)     explosion in furnace
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

148.   The economiser is used in boilers to
(a)     increase thermal efficiency of boiler
(b)     economise on fuel
(c)     extract heat from the exhaust flue gases
(d)     increase flue gas temperature
(e)     to heat feed water by bled steam.
Ans: a

149.   An economiser in a boiler
(a)     increases steam pressure
(b)     increases steam flow
(c)     decreases fuel consumption
(d)     decreases steam pressure
(e)     increases life of boiler.
Ans: c

150. Oxygen content in atmospheric air on volume basis is
(a) 21%      
(b) 23%
(d) 30%      
(d) 40%
(e) 70%.
Ans: a

151.  Oxygen content in atmospheric air on weight basis is
(a) 21%      
(b) 23%  
(c) 30%      
(d) 40%
(e ) 70%.
Ans: b

152.   Primary air is the air used to
(a)     provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b)     transport and dry the coal
(c)     convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO2 at higher zone
(d)     air-delivered by forced draft fan
(e)     none ot the above.
Ans: b

153.   Sulphur content of fuels is very important to the plant operators because it
(a)     has high heating value
(b)     retards electric precipitation
(c)     promotes complete combustion
(d)     has highly corrosive effect
(e)     facilitates ash removal.
Ans: d

154.   Presence of moisture in fuel oil would
(a)     keep the burner tips cool
(b)     aid in proper combustion
(c)     cause sputtering, possibly extinguish¬ing flame
(d)     clean the nozzles
(e)     reduce flame length.
Ans: c

155.   Gusset stays in a boiler are provided to
(a)     prevent the bulging of flat surfaces
(b)     avoid explosion in furnace
(c)     prevent leakage of hot flue gases
(d)     support furnace freely from top
(e)     prevent atmospheric air leaking into furnace.
Ans: a

156.   Water and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by
(a)     heating the oil in the settling tanks
(b)     cooling the oil in the settling tanks
(c)     burning the oil
(d)     suspension
(e)     filtering.
Ans: a

157.   Pour point of fuel oil is the
(a)     lowest temperature at which oil will flow under set condition
(b)     storage temperature
(c)     temperature at which fuel is pumped through burners
(d)     temperature at which oil is transported
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

158.   Secondary air is the used to
(a)     provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b)     transport and dry the coal
(c)     convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO2 at higher zone
(d)     air delivered by induced draft fan
(e)     air fed to pulverisers.
Ans: a

159.   The behaviour of coal in a furnace is determained by
(a)     the content of sulphur
(b)     the content of ash and heating value
(c)     the proximate analysis
(d)     the exact analysis
(e)     its type.
Ans: c

160. Pick up wrong statement about desired properties of a good fuel
(a)     high calorific value
(b)     produce minimum smoke and gases
(c)     ease in storing
(d)     high ignition point
(e)     ecomomical
Ans: d

161.   Sulphur in coal results in
(a)     causing clinkering and slagging
(b)     corroding air heaters
(c)     spontaneous combustion during coal storage
(d)     facilitating ash precipitation
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: e

162.   Caking coals are those which
(a)     form lumps or masses of coke
(b)     burn freely
(c)     show little or no fusing action
(d)     burn completely
(e)     do not form ash.
Ans: a

163.   Green coal, in order to be burnt, must be
(a)     heated sufficiently
(b)     burnt in excess air
(c)     heated to its ignition point
(d)     burnt as powder
(e)     burnt as lumps.
Ans: c

164.   The ultimate analysis of fuel lists
(a)     various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by volume
(b)     various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by weight
(c)     fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d)     fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e)     moisture and ash free heating value.
Ans: b

165.   The proximate analysis of fuel lists
(a)     various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by volume
(b)     various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by weight
(c)     fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d)     fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e)     moisture and ash free heating value.
Ans: d

166.   Tertiary air is the air used to
(a)     provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b)     transport and dry the coal
(c)     cool the scanners
(d)     supply air for ignitors
(e)     convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone.
Ans: e

167.   The safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on superheater is set at
(a) same value      
(b) higher value
(c)     lower value
(d)     lower/higher depending on steam flow
(e)     unpredicatble.
Ans: b

168.   Which is not correct statement about pulverised fuel firing
(a)     high burning rate is possible
(b)     heat release can be easily controlled
(c)     fuel burns economically
(d)     it is the best technique for burning high ash content fuel having low fusion ash
(e)     separate mills are required to powder the coal.
Ans: d

169.   The three "Ts" for good combustion are
(a)     temperature, time, and turbulance
(b)     total air, true fuel, and turbulance
(c)     thorough mixing, total air, and temperature
(d)     total air, time, and temperature
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

170.  Which is not correct statement about the function of furnace
(a)     to provide proper conditions for con-tinuous complete combustion
(b)     mix fuel with air and ignite
(c)     separate ash from coal
(d)     maintain heat supply to prepare and ignite the incoming fuel
(e)     to minimise radiation losses.
Ans: c

171.   Which is not correct statement about effect of sulphur in fuel
(a)     it has heating value
(b)     it helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash in flue-gases
(c)     it leads to corrosion of air heaters, ducting, etc. if flue gas exit temperature is low
(d)     it erodes furnace walls
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

172. Heating value of fuel used is as on fired basis. If it is reported for dry or moisture free fuel, then latter should be multiplied by the following factor to correct for as fired value
(a)     (1- moisture content)
(b)     (1 + moisture content)
(c)     1 + moisture content
(d)     1 - moisture content
Ans: a

173.   Gardually increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney for given steam outputs is an indication of
(a)     higher effectiveness of boiler
(b)     high calorific value coal being burnt
(c)     fouling of heat transfer surfaces
(d)     raising of steam temperature
(e)     leakage of air.
Ans: c

174.   Incomplete combustion can be best judged by
(a)     smoky chimney exit
(b)     excess air in flue gases
(c)     measuring carbon mono-oxide in flue gases
(d)     measuring temperature of flue gases at exit of furnace
(e)     measuring oxygen in flue gases.
Ans: c

175.   The capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in a boiler is
(a)     same
(b)     more
(c)     less
(d)     less or more depending on size of boiler
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: b

176.   Pulverised fuel is used for
(a)     better burning
(b)     more calorific value
(c)     less radiation loss
(d)     medium sized units
(e)     stoker fired boilers.
Ans: a

177.   Calorific value of coal is of the order of
(a)     200-400 kcal/kg
(b)     800-1200 kcal/kg
(c)     2000-4000 kcal/kg
(d)     5000-8000 kcal/kg
(e)     8000-10,000 kcal/kg.
Ans: c

178.   Evaporative capacity of boiler is expressed as
(a)     kg of steam produced
(b)     steam pressure produced
(c)     kg of fuel fired
(d)     kg of steam produced per kg of fuel fifed
(e)     kg of water evaporated.
Ans: d

179.   Boiler parameters are expressed by
(a)     tonnes/hr. of steam
(b)     pressure of steam in kg/cm2
(c)     temperature of steam in °C
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

180.   The condition of steam in boiler drum is always
(a) dry        
(b) wet
(c) saturated        
(d) supersaturated
(e) superheated.
Ans: b

181.   The balanced draft furnace is one using
(a)     induced draft fan and chimney
(b)     induced draft fan and forced draft fan
(c)     forced draft fan and chimney
(d)     any one of the above
(e)     none of the above.
 Ans: b

182.   In ordetjo obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler. As as result, furnace vacuum will
(a)     remain unaffected
(b)     improve      

(c)     worsen
(d)     may improve/worsen depending on size
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: c

183.   Maximum energy loss in a boiler occurs due to
(a)     unburnt carbon in ash
(b)     incomplete combustion
(c)     ash content      
(d)     flue gases
(e)     radiation losses.
Ans: d

184.   Overfire burning is the phenomenon of
(a)     supply of excess, air
(b)     supply of excess coal
(c)     burning CO and unburnts in upper zone of furnace by supplying          more air
(d)     fuel bed firing
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

185.   Which is not the correct statement about moisture in coal
(a)     inherent moisture and surface mois¬ture are different things
(b)     in some coals moisture may be present upto 40%
(c)     some moisture in coal helps in better burning which is not                     possible with completely dry coal
(d)     it increases thermal efficiency
(e)     moisture in coal is removed before firing by heating it with hot air.
Ans: d

186.   Deaeration of feed water is carried out because it reduces
(a)     cavitation of .boiler feed pumps
(b)     corrosion caused by oxygen
(c)     heat transfer coefficient
(d)     pH value of water
(e)     weight of water to be handled.
Ans: b

187.   A supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of following values
(a)     100 kg/cm2 and 540°C
(b)     1 kg/cm2 and 100°C
(c)     218 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
(d)     218 kg/cm2 abs and 540°C
(e)     100 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
Ans: c

188.   Natural water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in pressure of boiler
(a)     increases    
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains unaffected
(d)     first increases and then decreases
(e)     first decreases and then increases.
Ans: b

189.   The steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with radiation superheater
(a)     increases    
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains unaffected
(d)     first increases and then decreases
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: b

190.   During storage, the heating value of coal
(a)     increases    
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains constant
(d)     may increase or decrease depending upon the method of storage
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

191.   The relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler convection heating surfaces
(a)     increases    
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains unaffected
(d)     first increases and then decreases
(e)     first decreases and then increases.
Ans: b

192.   Film boling occurs at
(a)     very low pressure
(b)     atmospheric pressures
(c)     medium pressures
(d)     very high pressures
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

193.   Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of
(a) 1 kg/cm
(b) 6 kg/cm
(c) 17 kg/cm2      
(d) 100 kg/cm2
(e) 250 kg/cm2.
Ans: c

194.   For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler has
(a)     more heating surface
(b)     less heating surface
(c)     equal heating surface
(d)     heating surface depends on other parameters
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

195.   In water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water-walls by
(a)     convection      
(b)     radiation
(c)     conduction
(d)     radiation and conducton
(e)     radiation and convection.
Ans: b

196.   Relative percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of
(i) furnace water wall,
(ii) boiler bank,
(Hi) superheater,
(iv) economiser,
(v) airheater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the order of
(a) 48:20:15:7:10
(b) 10:7:15:20:48
(c) 20:48:7:15:10
(d) 7:15:20:10:48
(e) 48:15:10:7:20.
Ans: a

197.   The feed check valve is used in order to
(a)     regulate flow of boiler water
(b)     check level of water in boiler drum
(c)     recirculate unwanted feed water
(d)     allow high pressure feed water to flow to drum and not allow                 reverse flow to take place
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

198.   The size of a boiler drum in pulverised fuel fired boiler,as its size and capacity, (steam pressure and flow ratings) increase
(a)     increases
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains unchanged
(d)     increases/decreases depending on steam temperature                             requirements
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: b

199.   Feed water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to
(a)     reduce hardness and for removal of solids
(b)     increase efficiency-of thermal power plant
(c)     increase heat transfer rate
(d)     increase steam parameters
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: a

200.   The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
(a) corrosion        
(b) scale
(c) carryover
(d) embrittlement
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e